BACKGROUND: I am following up on some discussion we have had regarding the
legality of a non-course loan from my father-in-law to my solo 401K to purchase
an investment property, given the fact that my wife is a trustee of the 401K. I
have discussed this with several CPA’s in the Twin Cities area this week and
have been told, similar to what you stated, that this type of transaction would
be a very gray area with the IRS. Most likely, any extensive research on
the subject by a CPA or Tax Attorney would not provide the conclusive opinion I
am looking for. I have decided not to purse this type of transaction as
it appears the risk of being classified a disqualified transaction is
significant.
QUESTION: Would another option
be, for me, to open a separate self-directed IRA account with funds that I hold
in an IRA, in my name? Under this scenario, in your opinion, would a loan
from my father-in-law remain in the gray area or would it clearly not be
considered a prohibited transaction?
ANSWER: Generally, the same prohibited
transaction rules that apply to a qualified plan such as a 401k plan apply to
an IRA. However, individuals have the option to open multiple self-directed
IRAs. As such, those IRA investors looking to be aggressive with their
particular IRA investment sometimes will open multiple self-directed IRAs to
spread their risk of a grey prohibited transaction because the prohibited
transaction rules apply separately to each IRA.
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